QUESTIONS ASKED IN THE CDS 2 2022 EXAM

Updated On : 07 Sep, 2022

UPSC CDS 2 2022 EXAM:

Today, September 4, 2022, the Union Public Service Commission successfully administered the UPSC CDS-2 Exam today from 9 am to 11 am for English, 12 pm to 2 pm for General Knowledge, and 3 pm to 5 pm for Elementary Mathematics. Those who have appeared for the post of Officers’ Training Academy have appeared in the first 2 shifts only. According to student reviews, the exam is quite tough Also as per the expectations, many students appeared in the exam.

Our subject matter experts have visited the examination centres and collected the questions which have been asked in the UPSC CDS 2 Examination. The students' facial expressions are clear enough to indicate the level of difficulty of the examination.

With the help of this post, we are giving you UPSC CDS 2 Important Questions which have been asked in the examination. Students who have already taken the exam as well as those who will take it later will find these questions helpful.

UPSC CDS 2 ENGLISH PAPER:

The section of English Language is moderate according to the review of the students and the maximum questions have been asked from Sentence Improvement, Reading Comprehension, Cloze Test and Error Spotting. Rest questions have been asked from other topics.

UPSC CDS ENGLISH PAPER TRICKY QUESTIONS:

Have a look at CDS English Important Questions to know the difficulty level of the questions.

FILL IN THE BLANKS

Directions: Each of the following sentences in

this section has a blank space and four words

or group of words are given after the sentence.

Select the most appropriate word or group of

words for the blank space and indicate your

response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

1. He _______ waiting for you since morning.

(a) have been

(b) has been

(d) Had been

Ans. B

2. What you propose is ________.

(a) on question

(b) in question

(d) out of the question

Ans. D

3. The campaign is in _________.

(a) full swing

(b) full of circles

(d) full mode

Ans. A

4. Life has been thrown ___________ due to the

weather conditions in the city

(a) in the gear

(b) out of gear

(d) in spirits

Ans. B

5. Had he told me the news beforehand, I

_________ careful and saved my money.

(a) Should have been

(b) Had been

(d) Would have been

Ans. D

6. He feels that he has been taken ________.

(a) taken for granted

(b) taken as granted

(d) taken in it

Ans. A

USAGE OF PAIRED WORDS

Directions : In the following questions a pair of

similar sounding words is provided. You are

required to select the option that most

appropriately describes the meaning of both

the words and mark your response on the

Answer Sheet accordingly.

7. ‘Perspicacity' and 'Perspicuity‘

(a)Perspicacity means ability to discern and

Perspicuity means lucidity of expression

(b)Perspicacity means lucidity of expression

and Perspicuity means ability to discern

means lucidity of expression

(d) Perspicacity means ability to discern and

Perspicuity means tenacity

Ans. A

8. ‘Deify’ and ‘Defy’

(a) To deify means to confer upon one the status of God

and to defy means to oppose

(b) To deify means to confer upon one the status of

God and to defy means to deny

confer upon one the status of God

(d) To deify means to oppose and to defy means to

deny

Ans. A

9. ‘Sympathy’ and ‘Empathy’

(a) Sympathy means sharing another’s feelings and

Empathy means understanding another’s feelings.

(b) Sympathy means expressing another’s feelings and

Empathy means sharing another’s feelings

Empathy means emphasising another’s feelings.

(d) Sympathy means emphasising another's feelings

and Empathy means pitying another's feelings

Ans. A

10. ‘Emigrate’ and ‘Immigrate’

(a) Emigrate means to illegally go to another country

and Immigrate means to arrive at another country

(b) Emigrate means to arrive at another country and

Immigrate means to leave for another country

Immigrate means to illegally entry a country

(d) Emigrate means to leave for another country and

Immigrate means to arrive at another country

Ans. D

ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE

Directions: Each of the following items in this

section consists of a sentence, parts of which

have been jumbled. These parts have been

labelled as P, Q, R and S. Given below each

sentence are four sequences, namely (a), (b),

jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your

response accordingly.

11. in the filaments of rubidium is used

which convert light energy into electrical energy

photoelectric cells

(a) QPSR

(b) QSRP

(d) RSQP

Ans. A

12. he urged so many to get involved

who has left his mark

this is the final word of an educational philosopher

on a world in which

(a) RSPQ

(b) SPQR

(d) RQSP

Ans. D

13. must support the main part

the beginning and the concluding line

described in the story or the events

(a) QSRP

(b) QPSR

(d) SRQP

Ans. A

SPOTTING ERRORS

Directions: Each item in this section has a

sentence with three underlined parts labelled

as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find

out whether there is any error in any underlined

part and indicate your response on the Answer

Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a)

or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response

should be indicated as (d).

14. It would be nice to have

a good evening stroll

(a)

(b)

after five hours of office.

No error

(c)

(d)

Ans. B

15. This testing method requires

(a)

one the fast overnight after which

(b)

the fasting blood sugar level is measured.

(c)

No error

(d)

Ans. D

PARTS OF SPEECH

Directions: Each of the following

sentences has a word or phrase

underlined. Read the sentences carefully

and find which part of speech the

underlined word belongs to. Indicate your

response on the Answer Sheet

accordingly.

PARTS OF SPEECH

Directions: Each of the following

sentences has a word or phrase

underlined. Read the sentences carefully

and find which part of speech the

underlined word belongs to. Indicate your

response on the Answer Sheet

accordingly.

16. A zero is a zero always.

(a) Noun

(b) Compound noun

(d) Adjective

Ans. A

WORD MEANING

Directions: in the following questions a particular

word is provided. Four sentences have been

formed one of which makes use of the world

correctly. You are required to select the correct

option and mark your response on the Answer

Sheet accordingly.

17. ‘Alibli’

(a) The accused was acquitted because he provided

an alibli.

(b) The accused was acquitted because his alibi

was not accepted.

was false.

(d) The accused was convicted because he provded

an alibli.

Ans. A

18. ‘Elicit’

(a) The call centre's operations were found to be

elicit. :

(b) The elicit ties between them were discovered by

chance.

an enthusiastic response.

(d) The elicit reasons stated were found to be

insufficient.

Ans. A

UPSC CDS-2 GENERAL KNOWLEDGE PAPER:

The section of General Knowledge was easy to moderate according to the review of the students and the maximum questions have been asked from History, Science, Geography and Polity etc. Rest questions have been asked from other topics.

UPSC CDS 2022 GK MOST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS:

Q .1 Consider the following statements about Karewas :

These are the lacustrine deposits of Pleistocene period.
These are found along the lower slopes of Pir Panjal.
Karewas are well known for the cultivation of saffron, almond and walnut.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) None

Q. 2 Consider the following statements about an Indian State :

It is well known globally for its variety of rocks and minerals.
It has the largest deposits of Chrysotile Asbestos in the country.
The Neelam Sanjiva Reddy Sagar Hydel Project is located in this State.
Identify the State from the following :
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) ChhattisgarhQ.

Q.3 Consider the following statements about Tincture of Iodine :

It is an antiseptic solution.
Iodine is kept in alcohol-water mixture.
Concentration of iodine is very low.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) None

Q. 4 Cl-is not isoelectronic with
(a) K+
(b) Mg2+
(c) S2-
(d) P3-

Q. 5 Which one of the following statements about starch and glycogen is correct?
(a) Both starch and glycogen are found in plant cells.
(b) Both starch and glycogen are found in animal cells.
(c) Starch is present in plant cells and glycogen is present in animal cells.
(d) Both starch and glycogen are present in plant cells as well as animal cells.

Q. 6 Which one of the following statements about the process of photosynthesis is correct?
(a) Light energy is directly converted to kinetic energy which oxidizes carbon dioxide.
(b). Light energy is directly converted to chemical energy which causes reduction of water.
(c) Chlorophyll absorbs the chemical energy of light which causes oxidation of carbon dioxide.
(d) Chlorophyll absorbs' light energy which causes splitting of water molecules and reduction of carbon dioxide.

Q. 7 An electrical circuit having combinations of resistances and capacitance is given below. The current, flowing through the circuit will be

(a) 1 A
(b) 2 A
(c) 1.5 A
(d) 0.5 A

Q. 8 A metal wire of length l and diameter d has a resistance R. What would be the resistance of another wire of the same metal and of same length but having double the diameter?
(a) R
(b) R/4
(c) R/2
(d) 2R

Q. 9 What were Manigramam and Nanadest in early medieval India?

(a) Cluster of non-revenue paying villages

(b) Village-level community groups

(d) Literary societies in the capital towns

Q. 10 To which one of the following schools of philosophy did Kumarila Bhatta and Prabhakara belong?
(a) Lokayata
(b) Madhyamika
(c) Purva-Mimamsa
(d) Uttara-Mimamsa

Q. 11 On the banks of which one of the following rivers was the ancient Mahishmati located?
(a) Sarayu
(b) Son
(c) Narmada
(d) Godavari

Q. 12 Which one of the following statements about the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) of the Parliament is not correct?
(a) It examines the Finance Accounts of the Government of India.
(b) Fifteen members of the Committee are elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members.
(c) The Chairperson of the Committee is elected by its members.
(d) In case a member of any other Committee constituted by the Government is elected to the PAC, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha decides whether he should continue to be a member of the former Committee.

Q. 13 Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Under Article 21A of the Constitution of India, the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children up to the age of eleven years:
(b) Every religious denomination has got absolute power under Article 26 of the Constitution of India to manage its own affairs in matters of religion.
(c) Only religious and linguistic minorities find - mention in Article 30 of the Constitution of India in reference to the right to establish educational institutions of their choice.
(d) Parliament cannot empower, even by law, any court other than the Supreme Court of India the power to issue writs within local limits of its jurisdiction

Q. 14 Which one of the following sedimentary rocks has not been formed mechanically?
(a) Sandstone
(b) Conglomerate
(c) Loess
(d) Geyserites

Q. 15 Which one of the following Labour Codes notified by the Government of India incorporated various provisions of the Central Labour Acts such as the Factories 'Act, 1948 and Plantations Labour Act, 1951 ?
(a) The Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020
(b) The Industrial Relations Code, 2020
(c) The Code on Wages, 2019
(d) The Code on Social Security, 2020

Q. 16 If you were to browse a table of a recent period showing life expectancy at birth for all categories of rural-urban and male-female divisions for all States of India, you are not likely to observe that

Urban life expectancy is higher than the rural one.
Male life expectancy is higher than the female one.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q . 17 What was a munjaniq in medieval period?
(a) Cannon
(b) Catapult
(c) Gun carriage
(d) "Portable armoury

Q. 18 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

Code :
A B C D (a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 1 4 3 2 (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 2 4 3 1

Q. 19 'Pingos' are associated with which one of the following process?
(a) Glacial
(b) Peri-glacial
(c) Aeolian
(d) Fluvial

UPSC CDS 2022 ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS PAPER:

The section of Elementary Mathematics is quite hard according to the review of the students and the maximum questions have been asked from Mensuration, Number System, Geometry and Trigonometry, etc. Rest questions have been asked from other topics.

UPSC CDS 2 ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS TRICKY & IMPORTANT QIUESTIONS:

Important questions which were asked in this section:-

1. If p is the difference between a number and its reciprocal and q is the difference between the square of the same number and the square of its reciprocal, then what is p 4 + 4p2 equal to?

(a) 4 q

(b) 8 q

(d) q2

2. What is the HCF of (x8-y8) and(x7-y7+x5 y2-x2 y6)?

(a) x2+y2)

(b) (x2-y2)

(d) (x3-y3+x2y-xy2)

3. If (x+k) is the HCF of x2+px+q and x2+qx+p, where p≠q, then what is the value of k?

(a) -1

(b) 0

(d) 1

4. What is 1/x(x-y)(x-z)}+1/y(y-z)(y-x)+1/z(z-x)(z-y) equal to ?

(a) 0

(b) 1

(d) -1/x y z

5. A closed box is built of the wood of uniform thickness. Its external dimensions are 12 cm, 10 cm and 8 cm. If the inner surface area is 376 square cm, then what is the thickness of the wood?

(a) 0.5cm

(b) 1cm

(d) 2cm

6. ABCD is a parallelogram. A circle through A, B and C intersects CD (produced) at E. Which of the following is/are correct?

1. AE=AD

2. CD=DE

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

7. A triangle has side lengths x cm, x+13 cm and x+26 cm. If its area is 126 square cm, then what is the value of x ?

(a) 18

(b) 17

(d) 15

8. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral. AB and DC when produced, meet in E. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. △EBC is similar to △EAD.

2. ∠CBE + ∠ DAE=180°

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

9. A rectangular metal sheet is of length 24 cm and a breadth of 18 cm. From each of its corners, a square of side x cm is cut off and an open box is made of the remaining sheet. If the volume of the box is 640 cubic cm, then what is the value of x?

(a) 2

(b) 3

(d) 6

10. If M is the mean of the first 100 even natural numbers, then what is the mean of the first 100 odd natural numbers?

(a) M-1

(b) M

(a) M+1

(d) M+2

11. In a △BC, ∠A=2θ, ∠B= ∠C=4θ and θ satisfies 4sin2θ +2sin θ-1=0. What is the ratio of BC to AB?

(a) (5)-1

(b) (5-1)/ 2

(c)(5-1)/4